Description

My guest today is Jared Rubin of Chapman University. He is the author of Rulers, Religion, and Riches: Why the West Got Rich and the Middle East Did Not, which is our topic for today.

The book deals with the question of why Western Europe became wealthier than the Middle East after centuries of being poorer. The book is part game theoretic model of society, part historical narrative through the lens of that model.

The model considers two main factors: the state’s power to coerce and its need for political legitimacy granted by elites. Importantly, different groups have been the ones to grant legitimacy to the state in different times and places. In the Muslim world, religious leaders primarily played this role, as they did in Europe prior to the Reformation.

After the Reformation, however, the power of the Catholic Church was much diminished in many parts of Europe. Rulers in places like England and the Dutch Republic turned to economic elites to grant them legitimacy. This gave the merchant and capitalist classes a seat at the bargaining table, setting the stage for the Industrial Revolution.

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discussions

  • Ok I was thinking about myself here: bills paid, only debt is a low interest mortgage, PM stored, some cash money saved. Which is it better to do when investing surpluses and savings between $500-$1000: 1) Put it all on one stock/etf/etc  the whole lump and then save up for the next buy (thus avoiding trading and transaction fees) 2) Pick a spread of affordable and undervalued stocks etc to avoid having all you investment money in too few stocks?

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  • Is there anyone out there that can SHOW ME the LAW that says the IRS can interfere with the business of the State Department?  Is there anyone out there that show me where “Congress” acquired Legislative Jurisdiction to interfere with travel within a State?  Can anyone show me the Law that grants “Enforcement” jurisdiction to the IRS for any territory other than “Federal” Land?  Just because the bunch of outlaw-renegades that call themselves “Congress” puts a bunch of words on a piece of paper and calls it a “LAW” doesn’t mean that it is a True, Correct, and Certain string of words that actually is “enforceable”.  Yet almost every time Obama writes an “Executive Order” or “Congress” passes something they call a Law most people (including some that should know better) start claiming that you or I are on our way to prison because of some language in the “new” Law or Order.  So let me ask this: How many of you have studied “Federal Jurisdiction”, or Federal “Legislative” Jurisdiction?  How many have read the Constitution and know anything about Separation of Powers?

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  • What are some of the differences between “Public” and “Private”.  If you are writing for the public or the private don’t you use the same (corrupt) Language.  Is there any difference between Public Law and Private Law if you use the same Language for the writing of both?  Is there a “different” Language for writing the Laws, Rules, and Contracts in either domain?

    Jump to Discussion Post 5 replies
  • Frank Maruschak October 22, 2015 at 6:00 pm What are some of the differences between “Public” and “Private”.  If you are writing for the public or the private don’t you use the same (corrupt) Language.  Is there any difference between Public Law and Private Law if you use the same Language for the writing of both?  Is there a “different” Language for writing the Laws, Rules, and Contracts in either domain?

    Jump to Discussion Post 1 reply
  • Mathematician have “standards” for math symbols, Computer Engineers have “standards” for logic symbols, Automotive Engineers “standards” for measuring symbols. Is the coming together and “agreeing” on a “standard” for a set of symbols for the communication of thinking and ideas, an Oppressive or Liberating concept?  Is there more benefit from the reduction of errors, mistakes and miscommunication by the adherence to a “standard” in a field of communication than the harm caused by any suppression of the creative process?

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